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I think that’s where Seiler may have gotten the idea from. He cites Émile Benveniste, the Indoeuropeanist.
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<div class="">In the meantime, Christian Lehmann has pointed out the following article, in which Seiler develops the structural and semantic analogies between possessive constructions and verb-argument constructions more comprehensively:</div>
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<div class="">Seiler, Hansjakob. (1983). Possessivity, subject and object.<i class=""> Studies in Languag</i>e 7: 89-117.</div>
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<div class="">A working paper version of that paper is available here:</div>
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<div class=""><a href="http://publikationen.ub.uni-frankfurt.de/opus4/frontdoor/deliver/index/docId/25138/file/AKUP43_Seiler(1982).pdf" class="">http://publikationen.ub.uni-frankfurt.de/opus4/frontdoor/deliver/index/docId/25138/file/AKUP43_Seiler(1982).pdf</a></div>
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<div class="">Best — Juergen<br class="">
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<blockquote type="cite" class="">On Mar 19, 2022, at 7:03 PM, Sebastian Löbner <<a href="mailto:loebner@hhu.de" class="">loebner@hhu.de</a>> wrote:<br class="">
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Isn't the European 'have' perfect essentially the same phenomenon: The same expression for the perfect and nominal possession?<br class="">
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Sebastian<br class="">
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