<div dir="ltr"><p class="MsoNormal" style="margin:0in 0in 8pt;line-height:107%;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Dear
colleagues, </span></p><p class="MsoNormal" style="margin:0in 0in 8pt;line-height:107%;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">My Neo-Babylonian
corpus (an Akkadian variety of 8-7 centuries BC) has a preposition <i>la </i>‘to(wards)’,
obviously borrowed from the contemporary Aramaic. Since Neo-Babylonian was an
administrative language of the time, while Aramaic had no official standing, the
borrowing of a preposition might look weird. What do we know about the ways
prepositions are borrowed, and in particular about linguistic situations that
favour this kind of borrowing? (Note that this was the time of Akkadian-Aramaic
bilingualism in Mesopotamia)  </span></p><p class="MsoNormal" style="margin:0in 0in 8pt;line-height:107%;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-family:"Times New Roman",serif"> </span><span style="font-family:"Times New Roman",serif;font-size:11pt">Thank you
very much,</span></p><p class="MsoNormal" style="margin:0in 0in 8pt;line-height:107%;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif">







</p><p class="MsoNormal" style="margin:0in 0in 8pt;line-height:107%;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Sergey</span></p></div>