<div dir="ltr"><p class="MsoNormal" style="line-height:normal;margin:0in 0in 8pt;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Dear colleagues,</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="line-height:normal;margin:0in 0in 8pt;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Please allow me a naïve question:
do we believe in a one-feature binary opposition of “perfective” vs.
“imperfective” aspect in languages that, unlike English (e.g., yesterday he
wrote ~ yesterday he was writing) or Spanish (ayer escribió ~ ayer estaba escribiendo),
do not exhibit a clear-cut morphological distinction of this kind within the
same tense, if I may put it as simply as possible?</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="line-height:normal;margin:0in 0in 8pt;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Thank you very much!</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="line-height:normal;margin:0in 0in 8pt;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Sergey</span></p></div>