<div dir="ltr"><p style="background-image:initial;background-position:initial;background-size:initial;background-repeat:initial;background-origin:initial;background-clip:initial;margin-right:0in;margin-left:0in;font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Dear Christian,</p>
<p style="background-image:initial;background-position:initial;background-size:initial;background-repeat:initial;background-origin:initial;background-clip:initial;margin-right:0in;margin-left:0in;font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif"><span style="color:black">Thanks you for your message! Indeed, German is well known for lacking grammatical
aspect. But are there languages whose verbal morphology (along with productive
periphrastic constructions) encodes only aspectual meanings, with tense always
inferred pragmatically as an implicature?</span></p>
<p style="background-image:initial;background-position:initial;background-size:initial;background-repeat:initial;background-origin:initial;background-clip:initial;margin-right:0in;margin-left:0in;font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif"><span style="color:black">Best,</span></p>
<p style="background-image:initial;background-position:initial;background-size:initial;background-repeat:initial;background-origin:initial;background-clip:initial;margin-right:0in;margin-left:0in;font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif"><span style="color:black">Sergey</span></p></div><br><div class="gmail_quote gmail_quote_container"><div dir="ltr" class="gmail_attr">On Sun, 27 Jul 2025 at 19:21, Christian Lehmann via Lingtyp <<a href="mailto:lingtyp@listserv.linguistlist.org">lingtyp@listserv.linguistlist.org</a>> wrote:<br></div><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0px 0px 0px 0.8ex;border-left:1px solid rgb(204,204,204);padding-left:1ex"><u></u>
<div>
<p>Dear Sergey,</p>
<p>you may wish to specify your question. First of all, there are
languages without any aspect at all, e.g. German. Second, there
are languages with more than two aspects at the same morphological
level, e.g. Yucatec Maya. So what exactly is the question?</p>
<p>Cheers, Christian</p>
<p>----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------</p>
<div>Am 27.07.2025 um 17:20 schrieb Sergey
Loesov via Lingtyp:<br>
</div>
<blockquote type="cite">
<div dir="ltr">
<p class="MsoNormal" style="line-height:normal;margin:0in 0in 8pt;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Dear
colleagues,</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="line-height:normal;margin:0in 0in 8pt;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Please
allow me a naïve question:
do we believe in a one-feature binary opposition of
“perfective” vs.
“imperfective” aspect in languages that, unlike English
(e.g., yesterday he
wrote ~ yesterday he was writing) or Spanish (ayer escribió
~ ayer estaba escribiendo),
do not exhibit a clear-cut morphological distinction of this
kind within the
same tense, if I may put it as simply as possible?</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="line-height:normal;margin:0in 0in 8pt;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Thank
you very much!</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="line-height:normal;margin:0in 0in 8pt;font-size:11pt;font-family:Calibri,sans-serif"><span style="font-size:12pt;font-family:"Times New Roman",serif">Sergey</span></p>
</div>
<br>
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</blockquote>
<div>-- <br>
<p style="font-size:90%">Prof. em. Dr. Christian Lehmann<br>
Rudolfstr. 4<br>
99092 Erfurt<br>
<span style="font-variant:small-caps">Deutschland</span></p>
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