23.1266, Sum: Suppletion Cross-linguistically Responses

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LINGUIST List: Vol-23-1266. Tue Mar 13 2012. ISSN: 1069 - 4875.

Subject: 23.1266, Sum: Suppletion Cross-linguistically Responses

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Date: Tue, 13 Mar 2012 11:54:57
From: Piers Kelly [Piers.Kelly at anu.edu.au]
Subject: Suppletion Cross-linguistically Responses

E-mail this message to a friend:
http://linguistlist.org/issues/emailmessage/verification.cfm?iss=23-1266.html&submissionid=4542427&topicid=10&msgnumber=1
 
Query for this summary posted in LINGUIST Issue: 23.1116
 

Hi all, 
Many thanks for taking the time to respond to my query on suppletion. 
This email is my attempt to summarise the responses. Some quick 
background:


My dissertation is on an auxiliary language of the Philippines called 
Eskayan which was created, according to folklore, by a pre-Hispanic 
ancestor and rediscovered in the early 20th century by a Messianic 
rebel soldier. On the face of it, Eskayan is a fairly straightforward 
relexification of Cebuano, a language spoken widely in central and 
southern Philippines. So, in other words, for every lexeme in Cebuano 
there is a corresponding lexeme encoded in Eskayan. This goes for 
verbal affixes and nominalising morphology too. 
 
But this is an oversimplification. It turns out that many of the Eskayan 
verbs and nominalisations show what looks like suppletion. In effect, 
these are words that are relexifications of Cebuano terms but with 
analysable/unsegmentable morphology. 
Eg, the Cebuano realis perfective affix mi- is encoded in Eskayan as 
chdin-. But in some realis-perfective Eskayan forms, this morphology 
cannot be detected or analysed - it is simply understood by 
convention. Eg, the Eskayan word bintaal  corresponds to Visayan 
migamit ('used'). No part of the word bintaal can shown to be doing the 
inflection. This happens all over the place and not just in common 
verbs.
 
Eskayan is mostly a written language and has its own traditional 
literature which I've been using as a corpus. I wanted to get a sense of 
how suppletive Eskayan really was in relation to other languages. I am 
making the argument that Eskayan is a reflection of what it's creator 
understood languages to be like. It looks like he wanted to bring in 
suppletion to represent irregularity as a descriptive fact about (his) 
language. 

Summary of responses: 

•	Anie Thompson suggested looking at Corbett 2007 
(http://epubs.surrey.ac.uk/1313/) who discusses how to quantify 
suppletions, treating it as a sliding scale of canonicity. 

•	Several of you suggested looking at the work of Llubja 
Veselinova, including her PhD dissertation which later appeared as 
Veselinova, L (2006) Suppletion in verb paradigms. John Benjamins. ; 
and to: Veselinova, L. (2011). Suppletion According to Tense and 
Aspect. In: Dryer, Matthew S. & Haspelmath, Martin (eds.) The World 
Atlas of Language Structures Online. Munich:  Max Planck Digital 
Library, capítulo 79, Map 79;  Veselinova, L (2011) Verbal Number and 
Suppletion. In: Dryer, Matthew S. &   Haspelmath,    Martin (eds.) The 
World Atlas of Language Structures Online. Munich: Max Planck Digital 
Library, Map 80

•	Calle Borstell pointed me towards these two theses: http://su.diva-
portal.org/smash/record.jsf?searchId=1&pid=diva2:373138 and 
http://su.diva-portal.org/smash/record.jsf?
searchId=1&pid=diva2:373138, and the suppletion database from the 
Surrey morphology group: http://www.smg.surrey.ac.uk/

•	Minna Persson pointed me to this: http://wals.info/chapter/21

•	Daniel Ross, a grad student from the University of Illinois had 
some feedback on the nature of suppletion generally (reproduced 
below)

•	Many of you provided examples of languages with lots of 
suppletion and I've included these below for reference.

Thanks again! 

Piers


___
James Crippen:
Tlingit has suppletion of verb roots that has to be lexically
specified. In verbs of motion there is a distinction between the
movement of a single entity and the movement of plural entities
represented by different verb roots. This is despite the existence of
singular versus plural marking in the agreement prefixes of the verb,
which occurs with all verbs. So:

át x̱waagút
á-t ÿu-x̱a-ÿa-√gút
it-to pfv-1sg.subj-clf-√go.sg
'I went there'

át wutuwa.át
á-t ÿu-tu-ÿa-√.át
it-to pfv-1pl.subj-clf-√go.pl
'we went there'

But

x̱watáa
ÿu-x̱a-ÿa-√táa
pfv-1sg.subj-clf-√sleep
'I slept'

wutuwatáa
ÿu-tu-ÿa-√táa
pfv-1pl.subj-clf-√sleep
'we slept'

This suppletion also interacts with the noun classification system
which has its own system of suppletion. In Tlingit, like in other
Na-Dene languages, noun classes are expressed through the use of
different verbs of handling, which is partly done with verb root
suppletion and partly through different 'qualifier' prefixes. So a
verb of handling has one form for a small round object, another form
for a flat flexible object, and so forth. These different categories
are partly expressed through suppletion of the verb root, and some of
this suppletion is due to whether the verb describes a single entity
or plural entities.

__
Dear Piers, 

I don't know if it helps you, there are a good couple of languages with 
verbs that show suppletion (or stem-alternation) according to the 
number (sing - plur) of the most affected participant (the patient). I 
found this phenomenon in the next languages: Georgian, Yurok, 
Southern Paiute, Ainu,Sandawe, Koasati and Sumerian. I can also give 
you the list of literature I used in collecting my examples, if you need it.

Hope it helps!

Best Regards:
Bálint Tanos

__

Dear Piers,
I am writing about your query to the Linguist List. Irish is a language 
with much suppletion. You will find many interesting details by looking 
at the dissertation detailed at <http://www.verlagdrkovac.de/3-8300-
1061-3.htm>. 
Best wishes,
AA
__
Dear Piers,

the Tibetan languages have a 'standard' suppletion of stems in the 
case of the word go
(I = the so-called 'present' or 'imperfective' stem, II: the so-called 'past' 
or 'perfective' stem, IV: the so-called 'imperative' stem; none of these 
labels really fit, but that should not be of much concern for you):

Classical Tibetan: I: 'gro, II: song, IV: song
Lhasa (written equivalent) I: 'gro, II: phyin, IV: song
Ladakhi I: cha, II: song; IV: song

In most varieties, this is the only suppletive form.
Classical Tibetan has about 1450 verbs (doublets with spelling 
alternations not yet sorted out), the modern varieties usually maximal 
800 to 900 verbs.

Some varieties also have a suppletive stem IV for the verb 'come'
I: yong/'ong, II: yong(s)/'ong(s), IV: shog

some Amdo Tibetan varietieshave one or two more such verbs
(please have a look at Roland Bielmeier 2004: "Shafer's proto-West 
Bodish hypothesis and the formation of the Tibetan verb paradigms". 
In: Anju Saxena (ed.), Himalayan Languages. Past and present. 
(Trends in Linguistics, 149.) Berlin: Mouton: 395-412.

Best
Bettina Zeisler
Universität Tübingen
DFG-project:
A Valency Dictionary of Ladakhi Verbs


__
Howdy, Piers,

  You probably already have loads of responses already, but I thought 
that
I would mention that the Yuman language family of California is famous 
for
its extensive use of suppletive verb forms -- I've often wondered how 
children
learned the languages for so long, but now there is no way to observe, 
since
all of the languages are moribund.

  Navajo/Apache also has a number of different verb bases for use in 
different
aspects -- this is a characteristic of the Athabaskan family generally, 
but
surface phonological changes make the differences appear more 
extreme than they
are.

  All best,

  Rudy Troike
  University of Arizona
  Tucson, Arizona
  USA
___
Hi Piers,

I'm a graduate student at the University of Illinois with an interest in 
typology.

That's an interesting question. I think it borders on discussions of 
complexity in general, or at least has some of the same methodological 
concerns: is it really practical to count how many such forms a 
language has?
Here's some info on an upcoming conference (including two relevant 
reference works) that might be of interest to you:
http://depts.washington.edu/lingconf/index.php
(I'll be there, but probably not presenting, as my paper was selected as 
an alternate.)

In my personal opinion, ''suppletion'' is a misused term (not by you, but 
in general). It basically means ''it's weird, and we don't know''. 
Suppletionoften refers to several types, as long as each type is itself 
unusual or unexplained by normal means. And it's used differently by 
different researchers.

For example, one analysis (presented in one of my linguistics classes, 
''Typology'' actually) claimed a case of suppletion in Arabic. Arabic 
nouns and adjectives take a final /-a/ suffix in the feminine form, at 
least they usually do. There are exceptions that are feminine without it, 
and some masculine words with it. It's probably something like 99% 
reliable, though, and it's entirely productive.
The complexity enters in that this /-a/ magically becomes /-at-/ when 
any material is added after it. To skip the details, I'll just say that this 
can be based on register (very formal Arabic pronounces this more 
often) and is obligatory when the noun/adjective is followed by certain 
case markers (which also are only used in a high register), and a 
possessive ending (which is not necessarily formal) also makes it 
appear.
So to make this explicit:
sadiiq = friend.MASC
sadiiq-a = friend.FEM
sadiiq-at-ii = friend.FEM.1Spossessive - 'my [female] friend'

So where did the /t/ come from? It certainly didn't just appear randomly. 
Other words ending in /-a/ don't get magical /t/ epenthesis. And it can't 
be the underlying form either, because other words ending in /-at/ don't 
lose the /t/ in most cases.

This mystery lead some researchers to the conclusion that it must be 
''suppletion'', or basically that they don't know what's going on.

My argument for it is that there is a feature on certain words (almost 
always overlaps with the [feminine] feature) for this. There's really no 
other way around it. You could alternatively claim some sort of 
complicated morphology where this particular morpheme has its own 
phonological rules, I suppose. Either way, suppletion was a lot less 
explanatory than a real answer, whatever that may be (or however 
hard it may be to figure out).

In the case of canonical suppletion like go/went, I think you'll probably 
find more about that just calling them ''irregular verbs''.
But then comes the next problem: how are you defining (that is, 
limiting) suppletion? Are all irregular verbs suppletive? ride=>rode, 
read=>read, say=>says?


As for answering your question about specific languages, I've studied 
about 12 languages (not that I'm fluent in them) and each has some 
suppletive forms, or just ''irregular verbs''. They're called different 
things, like ''stem changing verbs'' (Spanish) or ''strong verbs'' 
(German), etc. Something that is very interesting, though, is that these 
aren't just random-- a lot of the forms can be somewhat predicted. 
Consider the English verbs quit/hit or rise/ride (which have parallel past 
tense forms), or perhaps even buy/bring => bought/brought. Which of 
these is ''suppletive'' or ''irregular''?

An old idea I've always found intriguing is from Pānini (if you want a 
citation I can find one, but it's fairly well known), stating basically that 
there are no exceptions. Instead, there are just many rules, some of 
which apply more specifically than others. So the past tense for all 
English verbs is -ed, but for a few there's another rule of changing the 
stem vowel to -o- from -i-, or whatever it may be. And we get a few odd 
cases of lexical items that just have their own rule, eat=>ate. Looking at 
it that way, suppletion is even less clear: is it just the times when a rule 
isn't universal in a language? Or when it's particularly infrequent?

Getting back to the languages I mentioned, here are some thoughts:
All languages I've seen have irregular verbs in one way or another. In 
Indo-European languages they often come from two original systems, 
one of vowel change (umlaut, etc) and another with a suffix. These 
both survived in the Germanic languages at least, and to some minor 
extent (just echoes) in Latin. Other irregularities come from innovations 
and sound changes, such as in Spanish when only an unstressed 
vowel become a diphthong, so the infinitive remained as it was, but the 
conjugated forms changed, such as ''pod-er'' (can.INF) and ''pued-o'' 
(can.1Spresent).
Basque has layers of regularity (classes of verbs that work differently) 
and then the most common verbs (at least) that are irregular.
Arabic has few irregular verbs in some sense because it follows a 
pretty strict root-and-pattern system, but not everything is predictable 
(such as what vowels may fill the patterns), and there are probably 
some exceptions, not that I can cite them at the moment.
Japanese is pretty regular, but a couple verbs have unpredictable 
participles, etc.
Swahili is incredibly regular, with almost no exceptions. But at least the 
verb ''to be'' in the present tense is randomly a different form, ''ni'' 
which doesn't vary by person or number, and none of the normal 
affixes attach to it. And several other verbs have their own unique 
properties, although I'd submit Swahili as an example of a language 
with almost no irregularity outside the most common verbs. (Lots of 
affixes to remember, but mostly regular usage.)

There is a definite trend that irregular patterns are in common verbs. 
So if you look at ''to be'' across languages, you're almost guaranteed 
that in at least 9/10 it will be irregular. In fact, I don't know of a single 
case where there isn't something odd with that verb. Swedish comes 
close to regularity, with är in the present tense for all persons and 
numbers (verbs don't agree in Swedish), but that's irrelevant when you 
consider the infinitive 'vara', etc.
In fact, aside from analogy (eg, ''copywrote''?) infrequent words should 
never be irregular (at least not for long)-- it just won't be preserved.

And that's only verbs. What about plurals, or cases for nouns? There 
are other topics too.

But to attempt an answer to your question, I think English is probably 
going to be a ''very irregular'' language, at least when compared to 
most languages in the world (that it will be somewhat near the top). 
The reason is simple: English is in an odd place between logical 
morphology and isolating words. You probably won't find much 
irregularity in an agglutinative language because it can't afford the 
extra uncertainty-- with that many affixes, everything needs to be 
regular or it won't be retained (and this is more true for polysynthetic 
languages). And in the case of an isolating language (Chinese for 
example) irregularity doesn't seem to hold much meaning, since most 
words don't change shape. I suppose  you could have a language that 
has no morphology aside from suppletion, but I don't know of anything 
quite like that. Right in the middle we get inflectional or fusional 
languages like English, Latin, etc., but specifically at the English end 
(toward isolating, away from agglutination) is where you're likely to find 
a mess of morphology... again, just my instincts on that one (but true as 
far as I know).

If you're interested in finding the rules within the chaos (or under it), 
then comparing to work done on German would be a good idea (there 
has been a lot done) because that can show you how to extract 
patterns from a seemingly random system. There isn't anything that 
thorough for English, at least nothing I've seen.

For historical data, nothing will be better than the development of the 
Romance languages from Vulgar Latin. A lot has been written about 
Spanish (among others), and I'm actually taking a class about this now. 
We can trace all of the words back to Vulgar Latin (and many to 
Classical Latin) and figure out why there are now irregular forms. 
Analyses of other languages exist, but the historical records are just 
much better for these languages than others. (Maybe if you wanted to 
look at Sanskrit, or Greek you could find similarly detailed descriptions.)


Again, I think you're asking an interesting question. I hope these (long) 
thoughts help you some. Let me know if you have other thoughts on it 
or some examples of the data-- I'd be happy to try to think of a similar 
case in another language that I've seen.

Daniel

__
Hi Piers,

My response was quite long, but you're welcome to share it. One 
interesting point that I thought of since I last emailed was that there is 
partialsuppletion (unexplained morphemes, spelling changes, etc.), and 
also complete suppletion, such as go->went. On that topic, I think you 
might find the verb ''to go'' interesting in the Romance languages. In 
each, there is a weird mix of at least two verbs, usually an infinitive like 
''ir'' (Spanish) or ''andare'' (Italian) and conjugated forms like 
''voy''/''vado'', that appear to come from some earlier form *vadire, but I 
really have no idea what that is or what is meant, if it existed (although 
it did come from somewhere, surely). I don't know of too many verbs 
that have completely irregular forms, though.

Have you found mostly irregularities within the mostly regular system or 
have you found some completely irregular forms? In that case, from 
what I know, those tend to be just two verbs collapsing.

For example, ''wend'' apparently is an old verb in English, with a past 
tense ''went''. It means to walk/wander, or something like that. And 
that's where we got ''went'' for ''go''.

There's also a really weird case in Latin: fero (1S.PRES), ferro (inf.), 
tuli (perf.), latus (past participle). (It means ''carry'', as in ''transfer''-- 
carry across.)

Your research sounds interesting, so, sure, send me some info when 
you get a chance. My area is definitely not the languages you're 
studying, so I probably won't follow all of the details, but I'm sure I'll find 
the basics interesting.

Good luck,
Daniel 

Linguistic Field(s): Morphology
                     Translation






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