LL-L: "Language politics" LOWLANDS-L, 20.AUG.2000 (02) [E]

[Lowlands-L]

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  L O W L A N D S - L * 20.AUG.2000 (02) * ISSN 189-5582 * LCSN 96-4226
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From: john feather [johnfeather at sceptic1.freeserve.co.uk]
Subject: Language politics

Roger asked:

>What events or circumstances made our lowland languages replace latin as
administrative language? <

According to Donaldson the reason was the growth of the merchant class,
though he's a bit vague on dates.

"But a knowledge of Latin was a prerogative of the clergy chiefly and also
to a lesser extent of the aristocracy. But with the growth of the towns and

the wealth, and consequently the importance, of the third estate, this
class
too needed to master the skills of reading and writing for the recording of

business transactions, etc. Not having a knowledge of Latin at their
disposal, however, the bourgeoisie was compelled to conduct its affairs in
the vernacular."

This account slides over the question of who taught reading and writing to
the new bourgeoisie. After all, the Church dominated teaching in many
countries.

The English poet John Milton was Latin secretary to the Council of State
under the Commonwealth in the 1650s, but I'm not sure what this meant in
practical terms. It might have been useful to be able to use Latin to
communicate with foreign governments. At this time it was the European
lingua franca for educated people and a great deal of science both in book
form and in letters was written in L. Newton wrote his "Opticks" in 1703 so

the fashion presumably changed at the end of the 17th century.

The situation in England was, of course, different from that in the Low
Countries because for a considerable time Norman French was used for legal
purposes. The Royal Assent to Acts of Parliament is still given with the
words "La reyne le veult".

John Feather johnfeather at sceptic1.freeserve.co.uk

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