LL-L "Labels" 2002.10.28 (04) [E]

[Lowlands-L]

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 L O W L A N D S - L * 28.OCT.2002 (04) * ISSN 189-5582 * LCSN 96-4226
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From: Jorge Potter <jorgepot at caribe.net>
Subject: LL-L "Labels" 2002.10.27 (03) [E]

> House of Hanover.
> Which leads to the obvious linguistic question - Jacobites supported King
> James against King George. James - Latin "Jacobus" from Hebrew Jakob
> yielding Jacobite - but how did Jakob become James in English (and Seumas
> in Gaelic) rather than say, "Jack?" or Jake or Jacob? Even French Jacques
> sounds closer to the original. Why "James" ? anyone?

Dear Lowlanders,

I can't answer your question, but assume it was the French against the
academics. What I can affirm is that in Spanish we have Jacobo, Jaime, Diego
and Santiago. Most Spanish speakers are oblivious of the common origin. Of
course Santiago is just short for San Diego.

Jorge Potter

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From: kcaldwell31 at comcast.net <kcaldwell31 at comcast.net>
Subject: LL-L "Labels" 2002.10.27 (03) [E]

> From: George M Gibault <gmg at direct.ca>
> Subject: LL-L "Labels" 2002.10.26 (01) [E]
>
> James - Latin "Jacobus" from Hebrew Jakob
> yielding Jacobite - but how did Jakob become James in English (and
Seumas
> in Gaelic) rather than say, "Jack?" or Jake or Jacob? Even French
Jacques
> sounds closer to the original. Why "James" ? anyone?

"Jakob" became "James" in English because of Old French "James", related
to Provencal and Catalan "Jaume, Jacme," and Spanish "Jaime" (Spanish
also has "Iago", which is the same name, just as English also has
"Jacob" - thus "Santiago", which yields the nickname "Diego").  The "m"
is an alteration of the "b" in Latin "Jacobus", seen also in Italian
"Giacomo".  In Slavic languages, the "b" became a "v" (Yakov).

Kevin Caldwell (kcaldwell31 at comcast.net)

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