LL-L "Phonology" 2008.06.12 (02) [E]

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Thu Jun 12 15:56:35 UTC 2008


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From: R. F. Hahn <sassisch at yahoo.com>
Subject: Phonology

Dear Lowlanders,

(My friend Jake, whom I address with Jakes, had better not find out about
this one, based on what I found out a few days ago.)

My basic question is if and where the word "jakes" for 'privy', 'toilet', is
still in use in English.

The etymology of this word is uncertain but is generally believed to go back
to the French name Jacques (Jacob). I suppose it arose from some type of
jargon, just as "john" did in American English and *Tante Meier* ("Auntie
Meier") in Northern Germany's Missingsch varieties (later adopted by casual
Northern German). Maybe these developed from taboo replacements like this:
"Where are you going?" "To visit Jacques/John/Auntie Meier" (as in American
English "to see a man about a horse").

"Jakes" (looking like a plural form but treated as a singular form, hence
strengthening the "Jacques" hypothesis) was apparently much in use in Early
Modern English. In fact, it and its occasional alternative spelling "jacks"
are involved in one of the various clues we get about pronunciation of
Southern English during 16th century. As a matter of word play, an
alternative to "jakes" was "ajax" during the Elizabethan era. From poetic
meter we can tell that the name Ajax (then usually spelled "Aiax") was not
pronounced [ˈʔɛɪʤæks] or [ˈʔɛɪʤɛks] as it is today but had main stress on
the final syllable: something like *[ʔaˈʤæːks]. This then sounded like "a
jakes".

"Your Lion that holds his Pollax sitting on a close stoole, will be giuen to
Aiax."
                                                             William
Shakespeare, *Troilus & Cressida*, 1588

So the clue is that the /a/ in written "aCe" was pronounced [æː], as it is
in some northern dialects of England (Northeastern, Lancashire?) I seem to
be not the only one that believes that, despite occasional spelling
confusion, the "a" in spelled "aCe" was pronounced longer than the "a" in
spelled "aC" (as in "jake" vs. "jack"). This jives with the fact that only
the longer vowel later turned into a diphthong, a rising diphthong ([ɛɪ]) in
most dialects and an even ([ɛɜ̯]) falling ([ɛæ̯], [ɛa̯]) diphthong in some
dialects such as Irish and West Indian ones. I hear slightly falling
diphthongs in some "authentically" pronounced literary lines.

Hear some of Shakespeare's lines of reconstructed pronunciation:
http://www.bbc.co.uk/radio4/today/listenagain/ram/today4_shakespeare_20050719.ram
http://internetshakespeare.uvic.ca/Library/SLT/media/mp3/reasons.html
http://internetshakespeare.uvic.ca/Library/SLT/media/mp3/cassius.html

So I believe the name Shakespeare was pronounced [ˈʃæːkspeːɹ] at the time
(cf. modern [ˈʃɛɪkspɪɹ], [ˈʃɛɪkspiɝ], [ˈʃeɪkspɪə], [ˈʃæɪkspɪə], etc.).

Many Canadian speakers have monophthong [eː] as an equivalent of the said
sound (thus saying [ˈʃeːkspɪɹ], I guess). On the US side, too, many speakers
[eː] or [ɛː] in names like "Australia".

As you can tell, I'm fascinated by phonological/phonetic reconstruction. Any
relevant information and idea (not only about English) would be welcome.

Regards,
Reinhard/Ron
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