LL-L "Morphology" 2009.07.21 (02) [EN]

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Tue Jul 21 15:29:44 UTC 2009


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L O W L A N D S - L - 19 July 2009 - Volume 02
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From: Roger Thijs, Euro-Support, Inc. <roger.thijs at euro-support.be>
Subject: LL-L "Morphology" 2009.07.21 (01) [EN]

> From: R. F. Hahn <sassisch at yahoo.com>
> Subject: Morphology
> As you may remember, I'm a believer in the theory that spoken language
tended to change well before the corresponding written language when very
few people were literate.

I remember a couple of years ago somebody in the magazine "Onze Taal"
contradicted the Southern belief that the migration South to North in the
16th century largely contributed to the uniformization of the Dutch
language.
The writer showed that the *grammar writers* of the 16th century, inspired
by German grammars, reïntroduced elements as gender differences, flexion
etc., wich already had disappeared in spoken language in the North.
Bookprinters folowed the rules set by these language creators and it
gradually became also the civilized version of the spoken language.
Comparing with the evolution 1000-1500 one can say that the Dutch language
relatively hardly changed in the period 1500-2000. Could this be explained
by scholar standardization?

Regards,
Roger

•

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