<div style="text-align: center; font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">===========================================<br>L O W L A N D S - L - 21 July 2009 - Volume 01<br style="color: rgb(153, 153, 153);"><span style="color: rgb(153, 153, 153);"><a href="mailto:lowlands@lowlands-l.net">lowlands@lowlands-l.net</a> - <a href="http://lowlands-l.net/">http://lowlands-l.net/</a></span><br style="color: rgb(153, 153, 153);">
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===========================================<br></div><br style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;"><span style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">From: </span><span style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;" class="gI"><span class="gD" style="color: rgb(121, 6, 25);">Paul Finlow-Bates</span> <span class="go"><<a href="mailto:wolf_thunder51@yahoo.co.uk">wolf_thunder51@yahoo.co.uk</a>></span></span><br style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">
<span style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Subject: </span><span style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;" class="gI">LL-L "Idiomatica" 2009.07.20 (04) [EN]<br><br></span><div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">
The vast majority of English speakers couldn't read or write at
all, and knew little or no Latin (or French); conversely, many of those
who could write didn't use much English, if any.  I doubt therefore
that the loss of inflections in the Middle English period had much to
do with written Latin.</div>
<div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Â </div>
<div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">A more likely explanation I've read was that Old Norse/Danish and
Old Enlish were pretty similar in terms of the root words, but had
markedly different inflected endings. So if they spoke to each other
in simplified root-word form, understanding was a lot easier without
the endings to muddy the waters.</div>
<div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Â </div>
<div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">It is very likely that by the time of the Norman Conquest,
inflections were already well on their way out in the spoken language;
their retention in the written Wessex standard form was very likely
already an anachronism.</div>
<div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Â </div>
<div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Paul</div>
<div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Derby</div>
<div style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">England<br><br>----------<br><br><span style="font-size: 11pt;" lang="NL">From: R. F. Hahn <<a href="mailto:sassisch@yahoo.com" target="_blank">sassisch@yahoo.com</a>><br>
Subject: Morphology<br><br>Thanks, Paul. <br><br>It's an interesting </span>hunch worth further investigation.<br><br>As you may remember, I'm a believer in the theory that spoken language tended to change well before the corresponding written language when very few people were literate. In such cases, scribes' errors might be indications, and I wonder if anyone has ever noticed those in the Old English of the Scandinavian period.<br>
</div><br style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;"><span style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Regards,</span><br style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;"><span style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Reinhard/Ron</span><br style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">
<span style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">Seattle, USA</span><br style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;"><br style="font-family: arial,helvetica,sans-serif;">
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