noun as adverb

[Michael McCafferty]

Nice, John. I would agree.

Or perhaps ome pesoh is an independent statement.

Can 'in' be said before "ome pesoh," for example?

Michael


Quoting John Sullivan <idiez at me.com>:

> Piyali notequixpoyohuan,
> 	I have never quite understood some structures in Modern Huastecan
> Nahuatl such as the following, ?Nitlaxtlahuaz ome pesoh.? ?I?m going
> to pay two pesos.? The verb ?ixtlahua? can only take the ?tla-?
> object, which won?t allow us to specify the object. I can add the
> applicative, ?Nimitztlaxtlahuiliz.? ?I?m going to pay you.? Or
> ?Nimitztlaxtlahuiliz ome pesoh.? ?I?m going to pay you two pesos.?
> But again, the specific amount of money can?t be an object of the
> verb.
> 	So after going back to Andrews (2003, p. 512), I see at the
> beginning of Lesson 49, ?Xochitl ancueponqueh.? ?You(pl.) have budded
> like flowers.? So a stand alone noun can function as an adverb. So
> perhaps the two pesos in the modern example is an adverb talking
> about HOW I paid you.
> John
>
> _______________________________________________
> Nahuatl mailing list
> Nahuatl at lists.famsi.org
> http://www.famsi.org/mailman/listinfo/nahuatl
>



_______________________________________________
Nahuatl mailing list
Nahuatl at lists.famsi.org
http://www.famsi.org/mailman/listinfo/nahuatl