gender neutral pronouns

[lino59 at AMERITECH.NET]

I'm 30-something, and while I agree that "its" is the neutral and "her" the 
marked usage (I'm not sure if I'd call it quaint so much as indicating some 
emotional overtone), this distinction seems to have been present for some 
time - I recall noticing it, for example, even as a child - and predates 
the use of gender neutral pronouns. I'm not sure what this implies, but it 
may mean the inter-generational explanation is not entirely a complete one 
and the two distinctive usages represent continuing...well, distinctive 
usages.

 Best, Deborah


------------------------------

>Date: Fri, 5 Sep 2008 07:39:30 -0700
>From: Emily Saunders <emilka at MAC.COM>
>Subject: Re: "gender neutral pronouns"
>
>There have been several very interesting points made on this issue. 
>But I would hesitate before calling the desk editors "tone-deaf." 
>When I mentioned the debate to my husband (both of us are in our 30's) 
>this morning, his first assumption at my rather rough explanation was 
>that the "her" was the debatable point and not the "its." I suspect 
>that this is more of a question of age and of the language habits that 
>go with them. To younger ears the "her" sounds (as has been 
>mentioned) potentially quaint and affected when referring to 
>countries, with perhaps poetic connotations (which, it could be 
>argued, might be appropriate in a piece having to do with Russia's 
>most beloved poet). But in our 30-something standard English "its" 
>would be the default (and not an error) and "her" the one with 
>particular connotations (and potentially inappropriate). This strikes 
>me as being neither more nor less than an example of natural language 
>change, the study of which gives linguists such good employment -- 
>but, I might add, generally irreversible in its force and direction.

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