taku- vs. taku-

ROOD DAVID S rood at spot.Colorado.EDU
Wed Jul 30 23:44:34 UTC 2003


Any L/D word with first syllable stress SHOULD, theoretically, have an
etymology that involves the loss of a vowel in front of that syllable.
However, I have no idea whether that's true in this case, nor what the
vowel or syllable might be.  I have long been suspicious on semantic
grounds of equating the -yA 'to have as a relative' with the causative
-yA, but I can't come up with any credible non-semantic evidence to
distinguish them.  I hope you'll get an informed answer from someone else.

David S. Rood
Dept. of Linguistics
Univ. of Colorado
295 UCB
Boulder, CO 80309-0295
USA
rood at colorado.edu

On Thu, 31 Jul 2003, Wablenica wrote:

> Hello everybody,
>
> I wonder whether L./D.
>
> ta'ku-yA, to have/use smt for/as smt,
> and
> taku'-yA, to have smb as some/which? relative
>
> are etymologically different words?
>
> At least Ella Deloria considered taku'yA a derivative from ta'ku,
> what/something.
>
> Thank you,
>
> Constantine
>



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