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Marino marino at skyway.usask.ca
Sun Jun 17 06:59:18 UTC 2007


"She makes me jealous for her" (1) and "she makes me jealous" (2) mean two 
different things, to me.

There may be either 2 or 3 parties to the situation being 
described:  "she(i) makes me jealous for her(i)" or "she(i) makes me 
jealous for her(j)".

(1) This has a benefactive meaning, to me.   I am made to feel jealous on 
somebody else's behalf, whether that person is the same as the subject of 
the sentence, or another person.  I don't feel myself to be at a disadvantage.

(2)  I am made to feel jealous of her or of somebody else.  I am the one 
who is made to feel disadvantaged.

The sex of the speaker, in English, would seem to be irrelevant.

Mary

At 03:32 PM 6/16/2007, you wrote:
>Bob, John, Johannes, whoever:
>Does the following gloss "....she makes me jealous for her" (female 
>speaker)  seem to fit the English notion of "She makes me jealous."???  I 
>believe that there was some past discussion on these kind of sentence 
>contructions with intransitives & causitive suffixes.
>
>Wáße irókunpi náha aré áma wáñi mínachi ñíthinhingihi ki,  Because she has 
>all the good looking men all the time, she makes me jealous for/ of her.
>
>ñíthin    =    jealous
>ñíthinhi    =    cause one to be jealous
>ñíthin + hin (I/ me)  + (for/ to)  +  hi  (causative suffix).
>
>Thanking you in advance for your review(s)
>Jimm
>
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