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<div style="direction: ltr;font-family: Arial;color: #000000;font-size: 14pt;"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D">> Now I’m wondering what your model is for the accent when the *GL or *BL is preceded by a syllable.
Second syllable accent would land on a squeezed out schwa, which presumably nobody wants to accent. If the accent then jumps to the primordial third syllable (as I think it would—correct me if I’m mistaken), wouldn’t that support the view that speakers at
that point consider primordial third syllable to be synchronic second syllable?<br>
<br>
<font size="4"><font face="Arial"><font size="4">There is no "schwa" there phonologically. That<font size="4">'s confusing phonology with phonetics. So of course the GL or BL syllable gets accent if there's a<font size="4">nother prefix. But what I'm saying
is that <font size="4">the CL syllable gets the accent anyway.</font></font></font></font></font></font><br>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D"> </span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D">Also, granted that most *GL and *BL initial words take their accent on the primordial second syllable immediately following these clusters, how does that
show that speakers still perceive the sequence as two syllables? <br>
</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font face="Arial" size="4"><span style="color: rgb(31, 73, 125);"><br>
</span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D"><font face="Arial" size="4">I'm not saying anything about "perception" at all. This is about "competence", not "performance", to quote Chomsky. CL-initial
words get accent on the first syllable because there <i>used to be</i> a <font size="4">
vow<font size="4">el where just the B or G is now. Accent is still assigned on that basis. (And I'm leaving aside the whole problem of vowel length here.)</font></font></font><br>
</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D"><br>
</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D">If the accent started out on the second syllable, and the vowel of the first syllable goes away by syncope, we continue accenting the same vowel we always
have. <br>
</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font face="Arial" size="4"><span style="color: rgb(31, 73, 125);"><br>
</span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D"><font face="Arial" size="4">Exactly.</font><br>
</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D"><br>
</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D">But why should that mean that synchronically we still consider it to be second syllable rather than first syllable?</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font face="Arial" size="4"><br>
<span style="color: rgb(31, 73, 125);"></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D"><font face="Arial" size="4">Because it
<i>behaves</i> like a <font size="4">second syllable w<font size="4">ith regard to accent. Don't get confused about the differences between phonetics and phonology. Morphophonology can still be affected by t<font size="4">hings that happened a couple
<font size="4">of thousand years ago. <br>
</font></font></font></font></font></span></p>
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<span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D"></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; color:#1F497D"><font face="Arial" size="4"><font size="4"><font size="4"><font size="4"><font size="4"><font size="4">Bob</font></font></font></font></font></font><br>
</span></p>
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