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<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>One of the best people to answer this question is
Steve Parkhurst. I'm not sure he subscribes to this list; if he doesn't
respond in the next couple days, write to me privately and I'll put you in
contact with him. </FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>My understanding of the situation in Spain is that
there are substantial similarities in the sign language dialects used in various
cities in Spain, but also significant dialect variation. The signing in
Catalonia is the most divergent from the rest of the country, and in addition
the Deaf community in Catalonia has a distinct sociolinguistic identity. It is,
as you said, a matter of identity construction that the two varieties of signing
are generally referred to as distinct languages. </FONT><FONT face=Arial
size=2>But, that's a pretty normal situation when distinguishing what's a
language and what's a dialect: identity construction plays a major role in those
decisions, sometimes more important than the actual structural differences or
the ability to communicate. </FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>I should note something about the Ethnologue
article. The Ethnologue website is only updated about every three years,
at the same time as the print version is published. A new version is in
preparation right now, so the information currently on the website is a few
years old. In the next edition, the name of the article will be changed to
Catalan Sign Language, which is the English name that is normally used for this
language in the linguistic literature, and is closer to the name used in
Catalonia: Llengua De Signes Catalana. This parallels a change that was made to
the ISO 639-3 standard last year; see <A
href="http://www.sil.org/iso639-3/documentation.asp?id=csc">http://www.sil.org/iso639-3/documentation.asp?id=csc</A>.
Both the Ethnologue and the ISO 639-3 standard attempt to describe the actual
situation in the real world, not define it. Ultimately, it is the language
communities themselves that need to decide whether they want to be identified as
using the same language as another community or have a distinct
identity.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Albert</FONT></DIV>
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<DIV style="FONT: 10pt arial">----- Original Message ----- </DIV>
<DIV
style="BACKGROUND: #e4e4e4; FONT: 10pt arial; font-color: black"><B>From:</B>
<A title=dmaureas@vodafone.net.gr
href="mailto:dmaureas@vodafone.net.gr">Dimitris Mavreas</A> </DIV>
<DIV style="FONT: 10pt arial"><B>To:</B> <A
title=slling-l@majordomo.valenciacc.edu
href="mailto:slling-l@majordomo.valenciacc.edu">slling-l@majordomo.valenciacc.edu</A>
</DIV>
<DIV style="FONT: 10pt arial"><B>Sent:</B> Saturday, February 23, 2008 8:03
AM</DIV>
<DIV style="FONT: 10pt arial"><B>Subject:</B> [SLLING-L] Catalan Sign Language
vs Spanish Sign Language national sign language issues</DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT><BR></DIV>
<DIV class=Section1>
<P><SPAN lang=EN-US>Dear all,<o:p></o:p></SPAN></P>
<P><SPAN lang=EN-US>I have found on <SPAN style="COLOR: #002060"><A
href="http://www.ethnologue.com"><SPAN
style="COLOR: #002060">www.ethnologue.com</SPAN></A> </SPAN>that Catalonian
Sign Language </SPAN><SPAN lang=EN-US>is </SPAN><SPAN lang=EN-US>(I
copy)</SPAN><SPAN lang=EN-US> “An indigenous sign language, quite distinct
from Spanish Sign Language. About 50% intelligibility by users of Spanish Sign
Language” and that Spanish Sign Language has “Small differences
throughout Spain with no difficulties in intercommunication, except in
Catalonia. Origin unknown, but it is reported that there are influences from
American, French, and Mexican sign languages”. I can realize the existence of
two different sign languages in Spain but I wonder if anyone could give me
more information about the origins of this differentiation (separate deaf
schools, Deaf organizations). <o:p></o:p></SPAN></P>
<P><SPAN lang=EN-US>Variability in sign languages is well documented for
various sing languages all over the world but at the same time most nations
–states are claimed to have one national sign language. It is really a
question why in Spain two sign languages can be identified in regions where
the oral languages of hearing majority are also separable (Spanish, Catalan).
The case is similar in Belgium. Is this distinction absolute real or does it
reflect identity construction issues? Moreover, standardization process in
sign languages is probably a demand of hearing majority associated with
similar evolutions in oral languages but I feel lately Deaf communities are
also concerned. <o:p></o:p></SPAN></P>
<P><SPAN lang=EN-US>I am working on language planning on Greek Sign Language
and I am interested in similar research on other sign languages.
<o:p></o:p></SPAN></P>
<P><SPAN lang=EN-US>Best regards,<o:p></o:p></SPAN></P>
<P><SPAN lang=EN-US>Dimitris Mavreas<o:p></o:p></SPAN></P>
<P><SPAN lang=EN-US>Phd Candidate University of Athens, <A
href="mailto:dmaureas@vodafone.net.gr">dmaureas@vodafone.net.gr</A>
<o:p></o:p></SPAN></P>
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