Instances of unmodified hair-day

[RonButters at AOL.COM]

In a message dated 2/11/2000 2:21:38 PM, db.list at BYU.EDU writes:

<< I may have missed it if it got mentioned earlier in this (interminable)

thread, but is there any evidence of "hair day" being used *before* "bad

hair day" (or perhaps "good hair day", if that came earlier)? If not, then

maybe the ability to use "hair day" by itself is the result of a change in

progress, with people like me not involved in the change. >>

Well, golly, for the last two days we have been posting ordinary,
garden-variety sentences in which "hair day" occurs without any modification!
The point is, since such examples occur as the result of normal rules of
English, one does not need to cite actual occurences to establish their
authenticity. That is to say, neither "bad-hair day" nor "bad hair-day" can
be thought of as "coming first" since they both necessarily have been there
all along. The only thing that could be thought of as "recent" is the
compound "bad hair"--since it is a word and not a construction.

I mean, would it make sense to ask which came first, "yellow-cheese knife" or
"yellow cheese-knife"? "sick-mother joke" or "sick mother-joke"? Etc. etc.