Flapping after /l/

[Aaron E. Drews]

Hello all,

Some weeks ago, I asked about flapping in "but hoped".  I appreciate the
responses.  My native instincts are a bit skewed.

Now, I have another question about flapping.  I ask you because there
isn't much detailed literature out there about the whole phenomenon.

Some of you and some Americans in general can flap after /l/. So in words
like _alter_ and _molting_ there's a flap.  I don't, and I don't think I
ever did, even before coming to Britain.  I know that this is a variable
feature across north America.

Do those of you that do flap after /l/, do you also flap /d/ after /l/?
So that _alter_ and _alder_, _molting_ and _molding_ are homophonous?  The
distinction between /t/ and /d/ is lost elsewhere, e.g. The injured lamb
was [bliDing] (Oswald 1943 (AS 18)); The man was [h at rDing] the sheep.
Is the distinction lost after /l/, too?  Or, does [d] have a longer
articulation than voiced [t] after /l/?

I'd appreciate any insights.

Thank you,
Aaron

________________________________________________________________________
Aaron E. Drews                               The University of Edinburgh
aaron at ling.ed.ac.uk                  Departments of English Language and
http://www.ling.ed.ac.uk/~aaron       Theoretical & Applied  Linguistics

"MERE ACCUMULATION OF OBSERVATIONAL EVIDENCE IS NOT PROOF"
        --Death