Dip-thong

[A. Maberry]

Perhaps the p-th/ph-th spelling of Hebrew Biblical names is more a result
of the influence of both the Vulgate and the Septuagint than any rational
representation scheme of Hebrew. The Vulgate version of the Hebrew YiFTa.H
(for lack of a better way of representing it) is Iephte, while the
Septuagint gives Iephthae (phth= phi-theta). Although I personally don't
pronounce it exactly as Rima  indicates, I certainly wouldn't guess that
the Hebrew could be pronounced JEP-thuh.

Allen
maberry at u.washington.edu

On Fri, 19 May 2000, Kim & Rima McKinzey wrote:

> At 1:33 PM -0400 5/19/00, Dfcoye at AOL.COM wrote:
> >... There
> >is also the Old Testament foolish father Jephtha (mentioned in Hamlet),
> >where spellings indicate it too was JEP-thuh.
>
> The Hebrew is yifTAH.  Perhaps the ph transliterations can be assumed to be f and the actual letter the peh without a dagesh (center dot which would make it a p). This is as opposed to the th transliterations which are NEVER th (with the particular exception of B'nei Brith).
>
> And no one has brought up ophthalmologist.  Not only is the ph an issue, but how many of you actually pronounce that first l?
>
> Rima
>