Question regarding phallic symbols

Bob Haas highbob at MINDSPRING.COM
Thu Mar 1 16:43:11 UTC 2001

Why do we necessarily have to have one Greek term to counter another?  Hey,
babe, get with the new world order.

Spreading the love,


> From: Laurence Horn <laurence.horn at YALE.EDU>
> Reply-To: American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> Date: Thu, 1 Mar 2001 10:07:10 +0800
> Subject: Re: Question regarding phallic symbols
> Well, yes, I've encountered "yonic" (from the Sanskrit noun "yoni"),
> and it would relate unambiguously to the female genitalia, but its
> counterpart SHOULD be not the Greek-derived "phallic" but an
> adjective derived from its male counterpart in Sanskrit, "lingam".
> Didn't the Greeks have a word for the female counterpart of the
> phallos?
> larry

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