Question regarding phallic symbols

[Bob Haas]

Why do we necessarily have to have one Greek term to counter another?  Hey,
babe, get with the new world order.

Spreading the love,

bob

> From: Laurence Horn <laurence.horn at YALE.EDU>
> Reply-To: American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> Date: Thu, 1 Mar 2001 10:07:10 +0800
> To: ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU
> Subject: Re: Question regarding phallic symbols
>
> Well, yes, I've encountered "yonic" (from the Sanskrit noun "yoni"),
> and it would relate unambiguously to the female genitalia, but its
> counterpart SHOULD be not the Greek-derived "phallic" but an
> adjective derived from its male counterpart in Sanskrit, "lingam".
> Didn't the Greeks have a word for the female counterpart of the
> phallos?
>
> larry