causative (more or less) "consent"

Douglas G. Wilson douglas at NB.NET
Thu Oct 4 00:05:33 UTC 2001


I suppose any linguist will appreciate the opposition between 'patient' and
'agent'. When one becomes a patient, he is to the medical system as a
hapless citizen is to the 'justice' system (note that I am careful to omit
any discussion of dogs or sausages here). Thus one is "consented" (i.e.,
given a consent form to sign), in the same sense as one is subpoenaed
(i.e., given a subpoena to [at least theoretically] accept), or miranda'ed
(more often "mirandized" I guess) (i.e., given a statement of rights to
acknowledge). In theory, in order for the process to continue, one must
sign the consent form ... just as in theory one must respond affirmatively
to the "Miranda" form. But to ask "Has she given consent?" or "Has he
affirmed that he understands his rights?" might tend to excessively
'agentize' the person undergoing the process. (^_^)

-- Doug Wilson



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