jsmithjamessmith at YAHOO.COM
Wed Dec 4 14:13:15 UTC 2002
More generic than just "falaqa", actually. Why do we
use "q" instead of "k" in rendering Arabic into
English? Why Qatar, which I've heard pronounced on
the BBC news as more like "gutar" or even "gutter",
instead of Katar? The sound in Arabic is presumably
distinct from the English "k" sound, but it usually
becomes simply "k" in English, whether the "q" or "k"
is used to represent it. If it's closer to "g" than
"k", why not use the "g"? Why this seeming
affectation for "q" in English rendering or borrowing
James D. SMITH |If history teaches anything
South SLC, UT |it is that we will be sued
jsmithjamessmith at yahoo.com |whether we act quickly and decisively
|or slowly and cautiously.
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