"using his French"

[Mark A. Mandel]

My wife, Rene Szafir Mandel, asks the following interesting question:

The use of "French [language]" for 'coarse language' shows up twice in a
recent NY Times article (December 15, 2003, "Bearing Questions, 4 New
Iraqi Leaders Pay Hussein a Visit", By IAN FISHER -- a cute title for
the pre-Christmas season).

It's not clear from the article whether the person quoted ("Mowaffak
al-Rubaie, a Governing Council member") was speaking English or whether
his words are translated. But this usage, which I have not seen before,
looks like it might be a non-native use erroneously extrapolated from
the idiom "Pardon my French", used after using vulgar language. Does
anyone know?

Here's the quote, the last four paragraphs of the article:

        >>>

Mr. Rubaie said: "One thing which is very important is that this man had
with him underground when they arrested him two AK-47's and did not
shoot one bullet. I told him, `You keep on saying that you are a brave
man and a proud Arab.' I said, `When they arrested you why didn't you
shoot one bullet? You are a coward.' "

"And he started to use very colorful language," he said. "Basically he
used all his French."

"I was so angry because this guy has caused so much damage," Mr. Rubaie
added. "He has ruined the whole country. He has ruined 25 million
people."

"And I have to confess that the last word was for me," he continued. "I
was the last to leave the room and I said, `May God curse you. Tell me,
when are you going to be accountable to God and the day of judgment?
What are you going to tell him about Halabja and the mass graves, the
Iran-Iraq war, thousands and thousands executed? What are you going to
tell God?' He was exercising his French language."

Copyright 2003 The New York Times Company

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-- Mark A. Mandel
   Linguistic Data Consortium, University of Pennsylvania