Another "$100 Misunderstanding" (1)

[Wilson Gray]

On Aug 13, 2004, at 5:30 PM, Gordon, Matthew J. wrote:

> ---------------------- Information from the mail header
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> Sender:       American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> Poster:       "Gordon, Matthew J." <GordonMJ at MISSOURI.EDU>
> Subject:      Re: Another "$100 Misunderstanding" (1)
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> I took the unusual thing in this form (IN veh lup) to be the schwa in =
> the final syllable.
> Is that what Wilson's pointing out?

Yes, that and the clear -e- as in "get" in the middle syllable. It's as
though my stepfather simply derived the noun from the verb by shifting
the stress leftward in the ordinary way, instead of using a whole other
lexical item, as I do.

-Wilson

>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: American Dialect Society on behalf of Bethany K. Dumas
> Sent: Fri 8/13/2004 3:57 PM
> To: ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU
> Subject:      Re: Another "$100 Misunderstanding" (1)
> =20
>>>> is clearly the preferred - by me, any way - pronunciation.;-) BTW, =
> my
>>>> late stepfather, a native of Saint louis, though of Arkansas =
> ancestry,
>>>> made this odd distinction in his speech: noun =3D "IN veh lup";
>>>> verb =
> =3D
>>>> "in VEH lup."
>
> I cannot tell from your spelling what vowels you are indicating, so
> am =
> not
> referring to those - but the
> stress pattern you indicate is the one that I have always used - with =
> initial
> syllable stress for the noun,
> and medial syllable stress for the verb. That's why I asked, "Is joke?"
>
> Bethany
>