Is there such a phenomenon as "undercorrection/hypocorrection?

[Arnold M. Zwicky]

On Mar 16, 2005, at 5:07 PM, Dennis R. Preston wrote:

> Nope; his analysis is (if I may speak for him) it that the possessive
> ;'whose" is replaced by the form 'who,' perfectly expressive of the
> possessive (as we find in numerous varieties of AAVE, clearer perhaps
> in such forms as "I saw Mary car," i.e. "Mary's").

that was the interpretation i assumed in my response (which has finally
gone out, after some hours of mailer woes).

arnold