Query: why "salt and pepper" but not "pepper and salt"?

[Michael McKernan]

Gerald Cohen asked:

>This evening I received the following query: Why do we always say "salt
>and pepper" and never "pepper and salt?"
>
>   I suppose the answer is that salt is more important.
> One may have just salt on the table, or both salt and pepper, but rarely
>only pepper.
>
>   Or am I missing something?

Most people on the planet (the English and their ancestors included) had
salt long before they had pepper, so there might be an argument based on
time of introduction, as well as importance.

Interesting how these two phrases, as I hear them, both place the rhythmic
accent on salt:

/salt' - and pepper/ (as in 'Dragnet' theme)

and

/pepper and salt' -/ (as in Beethoven's Fifth)

In my (limited, obviously) personal experience, 'salt and pepper' is much
more common than 'pepper and salt,' to the extent that the latter stands
out as an attention-getter because of its unexpected reversal of the
ordinary phrase.  (Probably explains why Beethoven borrowed the rhythm,
since he was known to be so fond of English food, wasn't he?  Anyway, he
certainly wanted the attention.)


Michael McKernan