"of" for "have" in "would have" constructions

[Amy West]

It strikes me as one of those differences between the written and
spoken language. I think the MW entry points out that it shows up in
writing when dialect and dialogue are being shown. The only
interesting thing about my example was that it wasn't in either of
those contexts.

Misanalysis. Reanalysis. Whatever you call it. I educate myself by
reading this list since my one and only formal linguistics class was
a million, billion years ago. Hence my query as to the underlying
process.

---Amy West

>Date:    Sat, 31 Dec 2005 14:10:40 -0500
>From:    "Dennis R. Preston" <preston at MSU.EDU>
>Subject: Re: "of" for "have" in "would have" constructions
>
>Funny. I'd call it a stage in the history of the language.
>
>dInIs