Pronunciation question (from L. Urdang)

[Tom Zurinskas]

In truespel I represent them, ~didint, ~woodint, ~koodint, ~shoodint (
syllables each).  However, "won't" and "don't" are one syllable each.
Interesting about "won't", I often hear it as ~woent and as ~wuent (where
~ue is as in "true").  It's about 50/50.



Tom Zurinskas, USA - CT20, TN3, NJ33, FL5+
See truespel.com - and the 4  truespel books plus "Occasional Poems" at
authorhouse.com.





>From: Jesse Sheidlower <jester at PANIX.COM>
>Reply-To: American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
>To: ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU
>Subject: Pronunciation question (from L. Urdang)
>Date: Mon, 28 May 2007 22:34:15 -0400
>
>---------------------- Information from the mail header
>-----------------------
>Sender:       American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
>Poster:       Jesse Sheidlower <jester at PANIX.COM>
>Subject:      Pronunciation question (from L. Urdang)
>-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
>
>>From Larry Urdang, who was having trouble sending to the list:
>
>----- Forwarded message from Laurence Urdang <urdang at sbcglobal.net> -----
>   Colleagues,
>
>   [IPA is not available in my email font.  I tried to keyboard the unique
>characters in Word, then copy them here from there, but that wouldn't work,
>which is why I have described "X."  For some unknown reason, the schwa
>copied.]
>
>   In my many years of experience in establishing the [phonetic symbols and
>in transcribing the pronunciations of words for dictionaries (Funk &
>Wagnalls International Edition, Random  House Unabridged, Collins English
>Dictionary, etc.), I have always regarded the n in words like didn’t,
>wouldn’t,  couldn’t, shouldn’t, etc. as  a syllabic: ['dIdXt] (where X is a
>lower-case roman "n", with a tiny circle below it), etc., because that’s
>the way they were pronounced by native speakers of English.
>   In recent years, I have noted that their pronunciation has shifted to
>the use of a full schwa: ['dIdənt], etc.  The change appears to be
>very deliberate and emphatic: people are pointedly saying the latter rather
>than the former as if it were a mark of culture or sophistication or,
>perhaps, just for clarity of articulation.
>   Am I hearing things, or has this change been noticed by others?  I
>suggest that it might not be a change but that the schwa pronunciation
>might be increasing in frequency.
>   Has anybody else noticed this, or am I just “hearing things”?  Has any
>written comment appeared on the subject?
>   Laurence Urdang
>   4 Laurel Drive
>   Old Lyme, CT 06371
>   urdang at sbcglobal.net
>
>----- End forwarded message -----
>
>------------------------------------------------------------
>The American Dialect Society - http://www.americandialect.org

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