"to boldly go"

Mark Mandel thnidu at GMAIL.COM
Wed Jan 30 19:02:31 UTC 2008

ISTM that as soon as you refer to Klingons, including asking whether
Klingons qualify as "one", you have entered an sf universe of discourse. The
possible referents of "(some/any/no) one", to me, are just about equivalent
to the referents of "person". If you refer to Klingons at all, you are
referring to sapients: individuals whose intelligence and personhood is of
the same level as that of humans, and who (not "which") are therefore
persons and therefore are included in "-one" references.

Mark Mandel

On Jan 30, 2008 12:19 PM, <RonButters at aol.com> wrote:

> Interesting question. If I said "No one has ever been in that dog house"
> could you properly say, "Wrong! MY dog has been in that dog house"? I
> don't think
> so. In other words, Klingons, being nonhuman, do not qualify as "one" any
> more
> than any other nonhuman (including your brilliant dog or even Noam
> Chimsky).
> Of course, since the world of science fiction is purely imaginary, one can
> imagine an alternative universe in which "one" refers either any humanoid
> being.
> Obviously, though, when the voice-over says, "... where no none has been
> before" the speaker does not mean to include nonhumans of any sort, since
> it is a
> given that there are other human-like creatures out there.
> On   the other hand, I guess I might not find very odd this sentence: "No
> one
> seriously challenged the human race except the Neanderthal."
> In a message dated 1/30/08 11:22:36 AM, laurence.horn at YALE.EDU writes:
> > Maybe so, but I'd think with a loss of accuracy, since if for example
> > a Klingon had ventured into some distant corner of the universe to
> > plunder, pillage, or whatever, that would satisfy the "no man/person
> > has gone before" clause but not the "no one has gone before" version.
> > The "no one" is a stronger claim than the original, as well as a more
> > sex-neutrally expressed one.
> >
> > LH

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