"wages" as payment *by* worker

Doug Harris cats22 at STNY.RR.COM
Wed Nov 26 04:26:58 UTC 2008

Seems a likely source for the 'wages of sin' term.

>At 11/19/2008 01:19 AM, Joel S. Berson wrote:
>>I have seen 18th-century uses of "wages" to mean payment *by* a
>>worker  -- if a slave was hired out and earned money for labor, he
>>would have to pay his owner an agreed amount that his time was worth
>>to his owner (and generally the slave was able to keep any excess
>>for himself).
>>This seems a reversal of the common sense of  "wages" being paid *to*
>>a worker, and I don't see it in the OED.  Am I missing something, or
>>is it absent?

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