Q: "It's" as the possessive?

[Tom Zurinskas]

If everyone says "knee" without pronouncing the "k" and you pronounce the "k" and they "correct" you, are they being "prescriptivists" (as if that's not a nice thing to be)?

Or is prescriptivism not a bad thing, but a good thing?


Tom Zurinskas, USA - CT20, TN3, NJ33, FL7+
see truespel.com phonetic spelling




>
> ---------------------- Information from the mail header -----------------------
> Sender: American Dialect Society
> Poster: "Joel S. Berson"
> Subject: Re: Q: "It's" as the possessive?
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
>
> At 8/10/2009 03:35 PM, Joel S. Berson wrote:
>>A correspondent on another list asks, when did "it's" as the
>>possessive come to be proscribed?
>
> I don't think anyone has yet addressed the question asked. Not when
> did "it's" arise (the OED is voluble on that). Not when "it's" began
> to come (back) into noticeable presence. But -- when did it come to
> be *proscribed* (that is, by the prescriptivists)?
>
> Joel
>
> ------------------------------------------------------------
> The American Dialect Society - http://www.americandialect.org
_________________________________________________________________
Windows Live™: Keep your life in sync.
http://windowslive.com/explore?ocid=PID23384::T:WLMTAGL:ON:WL:en-US:NF_BR_sync:082009

------------------------------------------------------------
The American Dialect Society - http://www.americandialect.org