preposition - zero variation

[Wilson Gray]

arnold, how about:

NP1 VP1 _for_ NP2 to VP2

as in sentences like:

"I would like _for_ you to comment on this insertion of? / failure to
delete? _for_."

as opposed to:

"I' would like _0_  you to comment on this ..."

That is, is this only a BE and other non-standard usage or has its use
among the general population merely escaped my notice? I sometimes
notice it - after the fact - when I unmonitoredly use it and I
sometimes notice it when other people use it.

But, it's like "fuck over," back in 1960. The assumption that
*everybody* uses a particular structure as well as the assumption that
only [ingroup] uses it can both be wrong, as I've pointed out to
others and as others have pointed out to me.

-Wilson
–––
All say, "How hard it is that we have to die"---a strange complaint to
come from the mouths of people who have had to live.
-----
-Mark Twain


On Fri, Feb 13, 2009 at 1:37 PM, Arnold Zwicky <zwicky at stanford.edu> wrote:
> ---------------------- Information from the mail header -----------------------
> Sender:       American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> Poster:       Arnold Zwicky <zwicky at STANFORD.EDU>
> Subject:      preposition - zero variation
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
>
> abstract on Language Log:
>
> AZ, 2/13/09: V + P~Ø:
>  http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=1140
>
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