"jewels" as "family jewels" (genitals) in 1450?

[Jonathan Lighter]

It certainly seems that way; but it might be a mistake to assume a general
continuity of usage since the Middle Ages.

Of the word, I mean.

JL

On Mon, Mar 2, 2009 at 5:18 PM, Joel S. Berson <Berson at att.net> wrote:

> ---------------------- Information from the mail header
> -----------------------
> Sender:       American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> Poster:       "Joel S. Berson" <Berson at ATT.NET>
> Subject:      "jewels" as "family jewels" (genitals) in 1450?
>
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
>
> Under "jewel, n.", sense "3. fig. Applied to a thing or person of
> great worth, or highly prized; a 'treasure', 'gem'", the OED (1989)
> has the following quotation:
>
> a1450 Mankind (Brandl) 426 {Ygh}e xall not choppe my Iewellys [---my
> privyte (cf. 414)] and I may.
>
> Noting "my privyte", is this an early -- perhaps the earliest? -- use
> of "jewels" to mean "male genitals"?
>
> (The OED does not have this sense under "jewel".)
>
> Joel
>
> ------------------------------------------------------------
> The American Dialect Society - http://www.americandialect.org
>

------------------------------------------------------------
The American Dialect Society - http://www.americandialect.org