"Mora" zero plural

[Douglas G. Wilson]

"Mora" (prosodic unit) in English apparently has two accepted plurals,
"morae" (Latin-type), "moras" (English-type) (e.g., in MW3).

Lately I've noticed a few instances of a zero plural "mora" (like "the
word contains two mora") in English text referring to Japanese language.

Is this because the writers assume "mora" to be a loan word from
Japanese (therefore suitable for a 'Japanese-style' plural)?

Most of these authors' surnames were not Japanese.

-- Doug Wilson

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