Counting by 10s vs. 20s
Joel S. Berson
Berson at ATT.NET
Fri Aug 23 17:41:47 UTC 2013
At 8/23/2013 10:51 AM, Dan Goncharoff wrote:
>To me, the interesting question is why any move to a system based on 20
>took place when the Romans did not use one. What caused the change?
Resistance of oppressed colonials to imperial prerogatives. As was
the cause of the American Revolution.
Joel
>DanG
>
>
>On Thu, Aug 22, 2013 at 9:11 PM, W Brewer <brewerwa at gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > ---------------------- Information from the mail header
> > -----------------------
> > Sender: American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> > Poster: W Brewer <brewerwa at GMAIL.COM>
> > Subject: Re: Counting by 10s vs. 20s
> >
> >
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
> >
> > JB: <<Did European serfs of colder Northern Europe wear shoes,
> > while the peasants of warmer Southern Europe went barefoot?>>
> > WB: And Honest Abe kept score on fingers & toes. Too simple an
> > explanation. Must get social scientists to amass data, organized into
> > volumes of biometrical tables verified by ANOVA. Only then will everyone
> > forget what the question was and the problem goes away.
> >
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> > The American Dialect Society - http://www.americandialect.org
> >
>
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