Another "nearly" from the wrong side

[Dan Goncharoff]

Does "nearly" have a wrong side? Why can't near-ness be a slightly higher
amount? Now if the article had used "almost", I would share your concern.

DanG


On Thu, Aug 29, 2013 at 1:49 PM, Joel S. Berson <Berson at att.net> wrote:

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> Sender:       American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> Poster:       "Joel S. Berson" <Berson at ATT.NET>
> Subject:      Another "nearly" from the wrong side
>
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>
> "Ackerman disclosed that he sold 39.1 million shares to the bank for
> $12.60 per share ... That's nearly half of the average $25 a share
> that he paid when he first invested in Penney in 2010."
>
> For me, "nearly half" would be $12.40 a share.  Although I suppose
> that if one is watching one's investment on its way down, $12.60 is
> nearly $12.50.
>
> "Ackerman takes a $400m bath on J.C. Penney".  Anne d'Innocenzio,
> Associated Press.  August 29.
>
> Joel
>
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