"to use" = "to do" in the 18th century?

Charles C Doyle cdoyle at UGA.EDU
Sun Feb 10 19:53:47 UTC 2013

Isn't that phrasing just elliptical for "for ever uses [to do], as they do who"?  "Uses [to]" as the present-tense of the current pseudo-modal-auxiliary "used to":  'customarily, commonly'.


From: American Dialect Society [ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU] on behalf of Joel S. Berson [Berson at ATT.NET]
Sent: Saturday, February 09, 2013 12:41 PM


In the following context, is "for ever uses, as they do who" to be
understood as ""always does (practices, acts) as those do who"?

"Our Author in this Paper, and in every Thing published by him
relating to this, or any other Distemper, for ever uses, as they do
who make Venice Treacle."


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