"with Frances and me"

[Joel S. Berson]

I often hear people say "<prep.> <someone> and I" (or, perhaps less 
frequently, "<trans. verb> <someone> and I") when the same speaker 
always correctly says "<prep.> me" (or "<trans. verb> me").  That is:

She came with Tom and I
She came with me
She told Tom and I to meet her at the bookstore.
She told me to meet her at the bookstore.

Is there an authoritative explanation for this phenomenon?

Joel

At 7/31/2014 11:51 PM, Jocelyn Limpert wrote:
>No -- you would say "with me" and not "with I."
>
>
>On Thu, Jul 31, 2014 at 11:44 PM, Wilson Gray <hwgray at gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > ---------------------- Information from the mail header
> > -----------------------
> > Sender:       American Dialect Society <ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
> > Poster:       Wilson Gray <hwgray at GMAIL.COM>
> > Subject:      "with Frances and me"
> >
> > 
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------------
> >
> > Shouldn't that be,
> >
> > "with Frances and *I*"? :-( <jk>
> >
> > --
> > -Wilson
> > -----
> > All say, "How hard it is that we have to die!"---a strange complaint to
> > come from the mouths of people who have had to live.
> > -Mark Twain
> >
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> >
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