[Ads-l] Resurrection of "different to" by Brexit Remainer Londoners?

[Joel Berson]

I had forgotten the difference between "common" and "more correct" (using the OED's term).  :-)  But I was wondering whether it was particularly British.

Joel

      From: Ben Zimmer <bgzimmer at GMAIL.COM>
 To: ADS-L at LISTSERV.UGA.EDU 
 Sent: Tuesday, July 5, 2016 1:23 PM
 Subject: Re: [ADS-L] Resurrection of "different to" by Brexit Remainer Londoners?
  
No resurrection needed, as "different to" has been common in British
English for quite a while. See Lynne Murphy and Ben Yagoda:

http://separatedbyacommonlanguage.blogspot.com/2007/07/different-fromthanto.html
https://britishisms.wordpress.com/2013/08/24/different-to/


On Tue, Jul 5, 2016 at 1:05 PM, Joel Berson <berson at att.net> wrote:

> "Being here shows that you're no different to each other," said Ms. Bahia
> [Sing], an accountant whose parents are Indian, by way of Malaysia.
>
> "If Scotland gets to make its own laws to reflect its own unique politics,
> why not the capital?" he [James O'Malley, a freelance writer in London]
> wrote.  "We all know -- and the referendum made clear -- that London has
> very different politics to the rest of the country."
>
> "Britain's Vote Upsets Londoners Who Find Harmony in a Cultural
> Cacophony", Sarah Lyall, NYTimes, Monday July 4, 2016, A4 (New England
> Edition).
>
> The OED, under "to, prep., conj., and adv.", A.21.a., said in 1921 "after
> different, from is considered more correct."
>
>

------------------------------------------------------------
The American Dialect Society - http://www.americandialect.org



------------------------------------------------------------
The American Dialect Society - http://www.americandialect.org