Origins of CJ

[David Lewis]

Dear friends,
Through my own studies, I have witnessed the 'attitudes' of the European
travelers and explorers of their adventures. I would like to know why
these discriminatory and "racist" people would have accepted a trade
language with a majority of Indian words when they had already imposed
languages like English, Spanish and French on peoples in other parts of
the world. This doesn't make sense to me. Was it because they did not
enslave the peoples of the Pacific Northwest to the degree of other places
or because of the late nature of their exploration of the PNW coast? I my
mind, this means that there was already a trade jargon in place that was
easily learnable. I have read that missionaries and certain people like
Gibbs picked up the language rather quickly and easily, which is why the
trade jargon was accepted.  But I leave this open to see where this
argument goes wrong.
David