another semi-unrelated query: predicative vs. attribute adjectival inflection

[Andrew Carstairs-McCarthy]

Hi there

Hungarian shows the opposite pattern, I'm pretty sure.  That is,
attributive adjectives show no case or number inflection but
predicative ones do inflect for number (case not being relevant
there).

Andrew

>Hello again,
>
>Can anyone point me to references other than Bernstein and Kester on
>explaining the difference between inflection on attributive adjectives and
>lack thereof on predicative ones, in languages that have this difference
>(e.g. German), and what makes these languages different from those in which
>both kinds of adjectives are inflected (e.g. Italian)?  Also, am I right in
>guessing that there aren't any languages that show the opposite pattern from
>German? Thanks.
>
>--
>
>Prof. Carson T. Schutze      Department of Linguistics, UCLA
>Email: cschutze at ucla.edu     Box 951543, Los Angeles CA  90095-1543  U.S.A.
>
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--
Andrew Carstairs-McCarthy
Professor, Department of Linguistics,
School of Classics and Linguistics.
University of Canterbury, Private Bag 4800, Christchurch, New Zealand
phone (work) +64-3-364 2211; (home) +64-3-355 5108
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