Agentivity and intentionality
dan everett
dan_everett at SIL.ORG
Thu Mar 8 11:59:58 UTC 2001
Tom Givon says:
>>RE: AGENT: I think what Scott alludes to is that you cannot reduce
all instances of 'agent' to 'intentional'. But if AGENT is a natural
human cognitive category -- i.e. constructed as a PROTOTYPE with
multiple features--you need not assume that ALL instances of AGENT
will always display the feature of intentionality, but only that a
large majority will (say at least 90%, my guess?). Natural categories
are not exceptionless, they just represent an strong statistical trend
(preponderance of evidence). So, I suspect, if a usage-based
assessment will be made of supposed 'agentive' or 'active' verbs in
text, you'll find a very robust association of AGENT with
intentionality. As well as with 'control', 'acting', 'responsibility',
and 'blame-worthiness'. So one would expect, as in other natural
categories a-la E. Rosch, to have strong but not absolute FEATURE
ASSOCIATION. If someone wishes to falsify this hypothesis, it's
relatively easy to do so, with a large enough text (say 50 pp.). But
until one did such quantification, it is not clear that we have
sufficient ground for treating AGENT differently that all other
natural cognitive categories. They are all frequency-driven. Cheers,
TG>>
************************
But let's try to make this talk of agents empirical in the following
way: is the intentional vs. nonintentional actor distinction causally
implicated in any interesting set of generalizations
crosslinguistically or within a single language? Or is this merely a
conceptual distinction, useful perhaps for human psychology, but not
for human language? If there are such generalizations, then we need
both kinds. If there are none, then we do not.
Now, a wide range of linguists, from Beth Levin to Bob Van Valin, have
concluded that the syntax does not, in general, need to appeal to
separate classes of actors based on intentionality. Tom suggests the
same in his concept of prototype. The question in regard to prototypes
is whether there are *linguistically* significant generalizations to
be gained by introducing such an entity into *linguistics* at all
(whether it is necessary in psychology or not is irrelevant). Role and
Reference Grammar (and other models, from Chomskyan theory to
Tagmemics) has/ve concluded that in fact prototypes like this lead to
no syntactic ends, merely obfuscating results. The best
generalizations, by and large, so RRG contends, are in terms of the
Macroroles Actor and Undergoer.
At one level there are intentional vs. nonintentional actors which we
can all recognize, e.g. in examples likethe one Scott presented. And
some languages, say, perhaps, Acehnese, may indeed use such notions in
its syntax. But other languages may not. Generally the answer is that
this distinction isn't made much of crosslinguistically, but there can
be many exceptions to this.
We need to be careful to allow for flexibility in what we assume to be
relevant crosslinguistically, lest we be mistaken for proponents of
Universal Grammar, rather than what I consider to be the much more
interesting (empirically) proposal of Boas, i.e. that we are looking
not for UG but for 'patterns'.
Dan Everett
More information about the Funknet
mailing list