Language and "Self-Expression" (2)

[Salinas17 at aol.com]

In a message dated 4/27/07 11:59:21 PM, amnfn at well.com writes:
<< Communication can be intentional or unintentional. Vocalization can be 
voluntary or involuntary. In the context of a discussion of the separability of 
language structure from communication, "self-expression" means a 
form-to-meaning mapping that encodes information where the speaker had no intent to 
communicate with another. >>

"'Self-expression' means a form-to-meaning mapping that encodes information 
where the speaker had no intent to communicate with another."

Aya -
I am trying to understand what this might mean.  So I'll try to do something 
that promotes common reference between us.  I'll ask some questions.

Is there a difference between "form-to-meaning mapping" where the intent is 
self-expression versus where the intent is communication?  What is that 
difference?

To put it another way:
I presume that we are talking about self-expression that must involve 
language, since your distinction above doesn't work otherwise.

Is this self-expressive "form-to-meaning mapping" in a specific language? 
(Not Language in general, but in a specific language.)

If this self-expression is in a specific language, then is that language 
changed when used for non-communicative self-expression?  How is it changed?

If a listener should accidentially overhear this "form-to-meaning mapping" as 
speech, would he find that it violates grammar or syntax?  Would it be a 
different language than the speaker would otherwise speak in?  

If the form or structure of the language is not changed, what is the 
different between speech generated for self-expression versus communication?

I appreciate your patience in all this,
Steve Long




















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