[gothic-l] first person n runes; Thiudaworda; etc

[Tore Gannholm]

>  Bertil Häggman <mvk575b at tninet.se> wrote:-
>>  "I, Hlegestr from Holt, made this horn". Sych a statement, so Borkenau,
>> contrasted sharply with the Greek and Latin expressions. A Roman crafstman
>> would write for instance "Gn. Manlius faber hoc cornu fecit" (The craftsman
>> Gn. Manlius made this horn).
>
>There are Germanic inscriptions where the author uses the 3rd person. e.g. I
>read about one (I think) "Boso rist runar" = "Boso carved the runes".
>
>I read that the name "Scandinavia" comes from a Roman source and that the
>parrt {-avia} is the Common Germanic ror "island". Where else in Germanicdom
>does the name or word "skand-" occur, and with what meaning?

As I have earlier pointed out the name "Skandinavien" only appears in the
Middle ages.

The Roman name for the Scandinavian peninsula is "Thule".

In Beowulf "Svear" are called "Scildinga".

And the Gotlandic people are called "Geata leode" and "Wedera leod".

When Plinius talks about "Skadia" he probably talks about Gotland. However
it is a bit vague.

See also my previous note on Tacitus.
Tore


>
>   "Tim O'Neill" <scatha at bigpond.com> wrote (Subject: '*Thiudawordaz' /
>'*Thiudaiworda'?(crosspost)):-
>> My problem is the name.  At this stage the site is called  '*Thiudawordaz'
>> which was my guess at Primitive Germanic for 'People Words'. ...
>
>Or should it be {Theuda-}? Roman sources have {saltus tEUtoburgensis} and the
>name {thEOdoricus}, with E not I. But with {Theodoricus} for
>{theudari:kaz} or
>{thiudari:kaz} there is the risk that the name was subjected to "Ypres to
>Wipers" -style distortion to the familiar by Romans to Greek
>{theo-dor-ikos} =
>"related to a gift given by a god".
>
>The name Ariovistus in "De Bello Gallico" has "o" not "a" as a link-vowel;
>can
>that be trusted as linguistics, or is it a distortion to Latin and Greek
>usage?
>
>Some say that it would be strange if Tacitus knew more about Scandinavia than
>about Germany, although Germany was nearer. But long-distance travel was much
>easier by sea (e.g. into the Baltic) than by land. E.g. I read that in Roman
>times corn could be shipped the length of the Mediterranean for the same
>as it
>cost to cart it 50 miles inland.
>
>
>
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