[gothic-l] problems with evolution of Gothic vowel system

[Philip Rusche]

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From: "Manuel Gutierrez Algaba" <irmina at ctv.es>
> >     Proto-Indo-European had only one sibilant... only one fricative
really,
> > and that was s...
>
> Ok, that's not right, I can't agree. No derived Indo-european
> language has such a simple scheme. For such strong assert you
> need a good couple of books to convince me.

Try Robert Beekes, Comparative Indo-European Linguistics (Amsterdam, 1995).
On p. 124 he lists "s" as the only IE fricative.  I don't have any other
books with me, but I think they all agree on this.

> > THOSE were. Perhaps you're thinking of Indo-Iranian?
>
> Indo-Iranian = Indo-arian = Indo-european

Indo-Iranian does not equal Indo-European. It's the common ancestor of the
Indian and Iranian languages.


Philip Rusche



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