[gothic-l] Re: Gothic and Old Bavarian

[keth at ONLINE.NO]

Hi Francisc.
You wrote:

>Because the Ostrogothic language of Italy was NOT affected by the 
>second (High German) consonant shift. In fact, this is one of the 
>criteria for deciding if an Italian word of Germanic origin comes from 
>Ostrogothic or from Langobardic: if it shows the second consonant 
>shift, than it's Langobardic, and if not, than it's Ostrogothic (cf. 
>Carlo Tagliavini - "Le Origine delle lingue neolatine" (Ed. VI), 
>Bologna, 1972).

I am currently looking at the little Latin booklet "Vita Severini".
In it occurs the PN "Ferderuchus"., which I read as Ferd + ruch.
{"ferd" might relate to the althochdeutsch verb "faran", which is
the same as neuhochdeutsch "fahren".  I am less sure about the 
meaning of "ruch"*).}

My question here concerns the "ch" in "ruch".
Compare with the two forms:
Dutch: Frederik.    (2nd sound shift has not taken effect)
Deutsch: Friedrich.  (2nd soundshift has taken effect)

Evidently, the 2nd soundshift causes k --> ch.

The question then is whether "Ferderuch" can also be seen as a
PN that has undergone the 2nd sound shift ?

Ferderuch was the brother of the Rugian king Feva.

Another example of k --> ch is in Getica § 190, where the
Visigothic king "Friderichum" is mentioned. Pesumably, that
could also witness of the soundshift having already taken
place in Italy before 551.

An interesting question is wether the Herulic language
had possibly also gone through the second sound shift.
If it had, the hypothetical "returning Heruls" would
have "brought home" sound-shifted language, which would
no doubt have affected the spellings they used in their
hypothetical runic inscriptions.



Best regards
Keth


----------------------------

  *) Can "ruch" be a version of "rug-" as in "Rugi"?



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