[gothic-l] wods jah wodan

[keth at ONLINE.NO]

Hails Anthanareiks!

þu melidês:

>Hails allaim!
>Re: Gaut = Odin thread
>
>Mark 15:
> gasaihwand þana wodan
>see him that was possessed
>
>
>18:
>was wods
>possessed
>
I'd like to suggest, with this as example, that we take up
Streitberg's work, and look at his dictionary entries, where 
there are many details that may be somewhat unclear to many.
For example, here is the entry in Streitberg's Wörterbuch,
corresoponding to the word mentioned by Anthanareiks above:

     woþs* (d) Adj.a wütend, besessen:
     saei was wods (25 C)
     o daimonictheis Mc 5, 18
     tov daimonizomenon (tps -ps) Mc 5, 15.

What does for example (d) mean? And what about the star* behind
the word woþs? (sometimes the star* is in front of the word)
Also, why does it say Adj.a and not simply Adj. ?
What is the meaning of saei?
The rest I think I know:

25 C = Colossians? Or is it the Calendar?
Mc 5, 18 = Mark 5:18
Mc 5, 15 = Mark 5:15

15 jah atiddjedun du Iesua jah gasaihvandb þana wodan sitandan jah gawasidana jah fraþjandan þana saei habaida laigaion, jah ohtedun.
18 jah inugaggandan ina in skip baþ ina, saei was wods, ei miþ imma wesi.

15 And they come to Jesus, and see him that was posessed with the devil, and had the legion, sitting, and clothed, and in his right mind: and they were affraid.
18 And when he was come into the ship, he that had been posessed with the devil prayed him that he might be with him.

ok I see now that saei means "who". (a relative pronoun) - and Streitberg says "ungemein häufig". 
saei is the masc. sing. nominative form of the relative pronoun. It is simply obtained from the simple demonstrative pronoun sa, by adding the ending -ei. Good to know !
It remains to take a look at the adjective forms "wods", "wodan".
The form wods appears to be merely the strong masculine singular nominative form, while wodan appears to be the weak masculine singular accusative form. Here I compared to the paradigm "blinds" in Braune/Ebbinghaus § 123 and § 132.

Perhaps then, in "þana wodan" the weak form is used because it follows þana, which is the singular masculine accusative demonstrative pronoun (see under sa § 153).

I hope these explanations were correct, and that some found them useful. Certainly I learned something from it. If I hadn't already learned some Old Norse, I shouldn't have been able to look it up so quickly. That is because the Gothic morphology works pretty much in the same way as the Old Norse one, although the endings differ. But the principle is the same.

I still wonder why the form entered in Streitberg's Wörterbuch p.178 has the þ (woþs*), while the documented forms all have the d (wods and wodan) ??

Best regards
Keth






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