[gothic-l] Re: Pronounciation

[Francisc Czobor]

Hails!

Sorry for my delayed answer, but there were some problems with the 
Internet connection in the last days. So, the "g" of "Gothi" and that 
of "Getae" originally designated obviously the same sound, 
respectively the voiced velar occlusive consonant (the English "hard 
g", as in go, get, give, etc.). This is demonstrated by the fact that 
the Latin letter G was used to transcribe the Greek letter gamma 
(BTW, in Greek Gothi is "Gótthoi", and Getae is "Gétai", according to 
Hermann Menge's big Greek-German dictionary; and it is sure that the 
Romans took the word "Getae" from the Greeks).
According to Carlo Tagliavini ("Le origini delle lingue neolatine"), 
the palatalization of Latin G before E and I (resulting "j" like in 
English, later in some Romance languages French "j") was parallel to 
that of C, that is attested beginning with the 3rd century. However, 
the palatalization of G is attested only from the 6th century, and 
for St. Augustine (354-430 AD), the Latin "lege" was pronounced like 
the Greek "lége" ("Cum dico "lege" in his duabus syllabis aliud 
Graecus, aliud Latinus intellegit", Doctr. Christ. 2, 24, 37).

Francisc

--- In gothic-l at y..., "matt6219" <matt62 at f...> wrote:
> 
> Thanks for your reply also, Matthew.
> Judging both from your reply and from Dirk's, would i be right in 
> thinking therefore that we are not sure how either Goth or Getae 
was 
> pronounced ?
> If so, then both could well have been pronounced with "g" as 
> in "Greek", or both "g" as in "German" (i.e. as "j") ?  Is there 
> anything which would show this to definitely not have been the 
case ?
> 
> 



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