[gothic-l] Re: Pronounciation

[ravichaudhary2000]

--- In gothic-l at y..., george knysh <gknysh at y...> wrote:
>
> --- ravichaudhary2000 <Ravi9 at h...> wrote:
> > Ravi>> Let me see if I understand this.
> >
> > In or about the 5th century BC ,there are a people,
> > whom if ones
> > reads an English translation of Herodotus( in the
> > 21century i.e.
> > today), is written as " Getae"
> >
> > In the 4th century St Augustine, sees this  with the
> > G sound  as  in
> > Greek or Go.
> >
> > In the 7th/8th century, the J sound appears.
> >
> > The G sound has  changed to J.
> >
> > The pronunciation of `Getae' is today `Jota.' Or
> > `Jotah', the J
> > sound !
> >
> >
> > Do I understand this correctly?
> >
> >
> > Thanks for the patience:
> >
> > Ravi
> >
> > *****GK: The Getae disappeared from history sometime
> during the 2nd c. AD. Subsequently the name had a
> purely literary significance. AFAIK it was never
> pronounced as a "J". The Greek sound was permanentized
> in the literature.*****
> >


George

Whether the " Getae" disappeared or not is not the issue.

It is simply,  as I wrote, How was/ is the word " Getae" as found in
the English translation of Herodutus,  pronounced then  and later ?.

My query is on the sound.

Please, for the moment can just we leave it at that.

These threads get too diluted, otherwise !

and thanks for the input, I was wondering where you were.

Best regards

Ravi












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