[gothic-l] what is the real objection against the Scandiavian origin of the Goths?

[vendelkrka]

I have read a lot about the pros and cons about the Scandinavian 
origin of the Goths, and I simply don't understand why some scholars 
are so categorically against it.

The way I see it, Poland is either the urheimat of the Germanic 
languages, or the Gothic language arrived to the Vistula basin from 
somewhere else. If we look at toponymics the names Götaland and 
Gotland are already suggesting where to look for the origin. If we 
combine with Jordanes account, it becomes even more convincing. 
Moreover, the Gothic language had a great deal in common with North 
Germanic and especially with Gutnish.

Now, I'd be perfectly happy if there was a just as convincing theory 
about a north German origin, but AFAIK, there is none.

My impression is that the archaelogical objections are carefully 
limited to the time period after 100 BC, ignoring the period 600 BC-
300 BC when the climate of Scandinavia deteriorated.

So what is the REAL problem with the Scandinavian origin?








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